Why do modern studies into language reveal that language families appear to have diverged...?

slowly as cultures moved and spread out when the bible clearly states that there was one language, and then the next day all other languages were created due to the tower of babel debacle? Why is there no evidence that or record of this shift in language?

Further, I ask why would god give geographically close cultures similar languages if the purpose was to prevent local communications? (thus preventing another tower that almost reaches him)

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