how could jesus be the messiah when the prophecies were not filled read on?

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May 2021 7 37 Report

how could jesus be the messiah when the prophecies were not filled read on?

1) Matthew 1:23 says that Jesus (the messiah) would be called Immanuel, which means "God with us." Yet no one, not even his parents, call him Immanuel at any point in the bible.

2) The Messiah must be a physical descendant of David (Romans 1:3 & Acts 2:30). Yet, how could Jesus meet this requirement since his genealogies in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 show he descended from David through Joseph, who was not his natural father because of the Virgin Birth. Hence, this prophecy could not have been fulfilled.

3) Isaiah 7:16 seems to say that before Jesus had reached the age of maturity, both of the Jewish countries would be destroyed. Yet there is no mention of this prophecy being fulfilled in the New Testament with the coming of Jesus, hence this is another Messiah prophecy not fulfilled.

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Anonymous

Verified answer

No corroborating evidence means it never happened! Only one story does not make a history report, there must be other stories that say the same things or at least the people must be real that the story is about and if they are they did things in their lives that a document would of been made for but there is not evidence like that for any of the biblical man made up stories! Now i wouldn't come out and say it is a lie if there were some form of proof, but there isn't, it is all made up in ones head!

Ambi valent

More to the point, the Jewish prophecies are quite different. Jesus couldn't have been the Jewish messiah precisely because he wasn't an ordinary mortal man, and failed to usher in an age of peace. The Christian 'prophecies' were identified AFTER Jesus is supposed to have existed, so the whole thing seems a bit suspect, to me. Those bits of the Hebrew bible that are used are frequently misunderstood or mistranslated to fit the story.

Blonde Chocolate

But the prophecies Jesus fulfilled (I think 137) had a 1 in a 300 million odds chance of happening and there's no way today that any Messiah today could prove he was genetically related to David; it's impossible. The Messiah had to come years ago.

however, the prophecy that bothers me the most is where it said, "He will spring from Jessee's rod". Which means, a physical relation to David (Jessee's son), not a step child, as was Jesus to Joseph.

who knows.

Was this not fulfilled in Herod the Great and Mark Anthony and Cleopatra? There was a City set in place in Rome Provincial near the ocean {sea} and Cleopatra was in Egypt.

It seems like an inverted triangle could be drawn from this city to Egypt {Alexandria} to Judea.

AdamKadmon

I'm only going to answer #2 because I just don't see any problem with the other 2 questions (I think YOU see what you want).

But, the custom of the time (the Law of the Land) as far as Jews and the Nation of Israel goes is this: any man who marries a pregnant woman is legally accepting the child as his own and that child is now a legal inheritor of that man's property and considered "his son or daughter" upon birth. This law protected the entire family, not just the child. The Jews were Millennia ahead of their peers in most laws and this was one of them. ANOTHER Law that the Jews were ahead of their times was this: If a female was the only child of a couple, she WOULD INHERIT. However, she was encouraged, according to the same law, to marry within "her Tribe." This was to keep the property communal and in the Tribe. (Look up the Jubilee Laws to see why). So, Christ was legal to inherit from his Mother (who inherited from her parents) and Joseph, his adopted father!

Study the law. He inherited the Title, King of the Jews from his mothers side (line), and the Throne from David's. Combined, this made Jesus the actual and LEGAL King of the Jews.