If those on welfare, and other handout systems (not retirement) who are healthy and of working age do not pay taxes which fund the democratic process, some argue they should not have the right to vote. It would cut government spending, and remove what many consider bribery votes.
Is this constitutional. If it isn't, quote the amendment that says so.
Update:But there is no amendment saying everyone, even those who are a burden on society have voting rights.....Or is there.
Update 3:Tmin ~ Good try. That Amendment is clear. But that lists things other than income, or status of collecting handouts. You are assuming that income, and handout status are connected to race, sex, or previous slavery, and that is incorrect. (and shows racism on your part as the PC would say) lol
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you can vote whether you get a hand out or not!
The Constitution is worded in such a way that certain rights are not spelled out literally. For example, your right to privacy is not guaranteed in the Constitution, but it's inherit in the right to speak (and participate in public life, etc.) that you also have a right to not speak. A protection against unreasonable search and seizure means that reasonable search and seizure exists, which also means that a life without any search and seizure also exists.
Just because somebody can't "quote the amendment" doesn't mean something is unconstitutional. Otherwise, we wouldn't need the Supreme Court to settle these arguments.
So while there aren't specific words saying that all adult American citizens have a right to vote, there are words specifying who may or may not be denied the right to vote. Consequently, the right to vote must exist.
That being said, voting is the root of our political system. It's what defines our government as a democratic republic. All else follows from that. Including the legislative process, the powers of the state, and how the whole thing gets paid for.
Voting was written into the Consitution from day one. The power of the federal government to tax our income came much later. And you must be talking about income tax since even welfare recipients pay sales tax, property tax and the various government fees that are imposed upon us against our will.
The right to vote is fundamental and you're just not going to find a Constitutional argument against it. Unless your name is Jim Crow.
The right of a citizen to vote is PRESUMED in the Constitution of the United States. However there some circumstances when this right can be legitimately suspended, such as the loss of this right bY convicted felons in many states. The Amendments quoted by others go about protecting the right to vote by spelling out situations where this right can NOT be denied.
Although there are some that pay no income tax, believe me, unless they are living in a hut in a national forest somewhere, they are paying taxes either directly or indirectly. There are sales taxes, corporate taxes built into the price of anything you buy, income taxes on business owners. . . the list goes on and on. Remember that corporations do NOT pay taxes. They COLLECT THEM for the government.
Even INFLATION is a hidden tax, generated by our fearless leaders, who are too cowardly to take the money directly. They can increase their own pay and thus avoid this tax which falls on the rest of us.
Although I have a philosophical problem with the "bread and circuses" (google it if you don't understand) mentality of voting, that is the price we pay for having DEMOCRATIC processes within our REPUBLIC.
Your logic on this subject is common, but pretty thin when you take the time to reason it out.
Vote against the incumbent
Vote for the VETERAN
http://www.hendrixcampaign.com/
Here you go, try reading the U.S Constitution some time you might learn some thing....
U.S Constitution
Article 7 - Ratification
Signatories
Amendments
Amendment 15 - Race No Bar to Vote. Ratified 2/3/1870. History
1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
2. The Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
no it's not constitutional...what about unemployed people, they're still citizens...even though they're freeriders they can still contribute to society and deserve an equil chance as anyone else...these civil liberties trace back to the magnacarta...and you're not just asking to strip them of voting rights. you know that if they can't vote they're not represented and then eventually they die out either through thirst or starvation or they wind up in jail cause they tried stealing a turkey...and that's how you came to the conclusion that it will save us money...and that's prettysick...another economic darwinist
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the 16th gives the government no new abilities to tax a person for income they worked for this has been found in 2 supreme court cases.....and it certainly says nothing about revoking citizen's voting rights...
In the beginning only property owners and the head of the household were allowed to vote
Actually, let's expand that to include government employees since their income is directly related to how they vote. In essence, government employees are accepting bribes to vote for greater spending (and spenders) in all areas.
You have things a little backwards. There is no "requirement" that a citizen be a taxpayer to vote today. You would need to add a new amendment adding this requirement to make it constitutional.
The 16th amendment (and the Revenue Act) gave our government the authority to collect income taxes.
If you don't pay, you can be fined and imprisoned. (See section 6012 of the revenue code for filing requirements.)
Your right to vote can never be taken away until you've committed a felony. But participation in elections by all citizens is a hallmark of democracies, and it should not be limited in any way.
Most people on welfare are to lazy to vote anyway